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Man: Who sent you this paycheck?
Woman: My employer sent it to me.
Man: Your employer?
Woman: Yes, the person who employed me, who gave me employment, who gave me a job.
Man: Your boss.
Woman: Yes, my boss.
Man: But I thought you were my boss, I work for you. I’m your secretary.
Woman: That’s true, but I also have a boss, someone I work for.
Man: And he pays you to work for him?
Woman: Yes, he does.
Man: You don’t pay me to work for you.
Woman: No, because what you do here in the workshop isn’t a real job.
Man: It isn’t a real job?
Woman: No. I’m training you for a real job later.
.
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You don’t pay me to work for you.
What does “You don’t pay me to work for you” mean? I don’t get it.
I don’t think either of them is correct in the given context. It should be seen in the light of the situation described. The man is undergoing only training but not doing a real job. But he can expect employment there later.
So, even if the man contends that the training is work, he is not entitled to a pay cheque.
Yes.
I’d just point out that “to work” is a verb in your first sentence and “the work”is a noun in the second. This is perfectly fine. You’re expressing the same idea in slightly different ways. I did the same thing in my example sentences.
