Hello, may ask about following?
From my grammar book:
By the time we get to the shops, they will be closed.
The film will already have started by the time we get to the cinema.
To me, these situations are very similar. Why are different tenses used? Is it possible to replace future perfect simply by will-future? What is the benefit of the future perfect then?
Which is correct:
I will have finished the work by 9 o´clock.
I will finish the work by 9 o´clock.
Thank you very much.
I’m not a native speaker, but I’ll try and help you.
By the time we get to the shops, they will be closed. (= then the shops are closed)
The film will already have started by the time we get to the cinema. (= the film will still be playing when you get to the cinema; I don’t think you can use the simple future here)
I think: ‘I will have finished the work by nine o’ clock’. is the correct sentence (= at nine o’clock the work is finished, completed.)
Alexandro has answered some of your questions, but regarding the above, both can be considered correct. They mean pretty much the same thing. The correct tense depends on the wider context.
Dear Beeesneees, I agree, but which one of these sentences would you prefer?
The difference lies in the predicted sense of completion in ‘will have finished’ whereas ‘will finish’ is simply referring to the intention of completing.
I don’t have a preference. It would depend entirely on context.