I have looked up the dictionary and got the definition of " parody" as below:
a. A literary or artistic work that imitates the characteristic style of an author or a work for comic effect or ridicule. [color=orange](See Synonyms at caricature)
b. The genre of literature comprising such works.
2. Something so bad as to be equivalent to intentional mockery; a travesty
and the following is the definition of “burlesque” that I have found:
A literary or dramatic work that ridicules a subject either by presenting a solemn subject in an undignified style or an inconsequential subject in a dignified style. [color=orange](See Synonyms at caricature)
A ludicrous or mocking imitation; a travesty
A variety show characterized by broad ribald comedy, dancing, and striptease.
They have so many points in common, haven’t they ?
A parody is not a substitute for original work but it must copy enough of that work to make the parody recognizable, and that amount of copying is deemed fair use.
A burlesque, in contrast, is usually just a humorous substitute for the original and so cuts into the demand for it by providing a substitute.
–The Economic Structure of Intellectual Property Law ~By William M. Landes, Richard A. Posner
I understand the difference between these two words, but we can’t deny that the question itself ( the definitions provided : “comical [color=blue]imitation; mockery; caricature” ) is compatible with both words.
It doesn’t specifically point out the “substitute for original work” issue. In this case, I’ll say " parody " undoubtedly is acceptable.
I think her smile was simply in reaction to your words, Gray.
Speaking of parody, here’s an unusual example from the US Government. Despite my feelings for the government, I thought they did a great job. Here are the original ads that they are mocking:
Thank you. I have read the post " What should I follow ". I 'll say I don’t really agree with you and other English experts who joined the discussion.
If we are talking about terseness, seemingly, the word " after " is redundant in the sentence. But terseness is not the only measure of expression. I know nothing about languages, what I know is the " barycenter " of the sentence is actually being slightly changed by editing the word " after " out.
Of course, languages have their rules and regulations, but they are not unalterable. Sometimes, for some particular purposes or of specific effects of expression, tautology can be acceptable.
I have stolen something from WordRefference.com Language forums, which is a post respond to a question like yours:
[i][color=blue]If it’s sloppy English, it’s old sloppy English. It’s very common in the King James Version of the Bible. I’m not convinced that it’s simply sloppy English.
If I say, “The king came by. His courtiers followed him.” it would mean something different to me than “The king came by. His courtiers followed after him.” The first indicates an order of events, such as relative positions in a parade or a procession. The second indicates that the courtiers are tagging along behind the king. In other words, their attention is on the king in the second case, and not necessarily on the king at all in the first case.[/i]
I don’t think the person who wrote this post is an expert, but I know he is not pedantic at all.
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