In the sentence “I have got a house” we use “have got” to talk about a possession.
I’m not sure grammatically if it is a function or a phrasal verb or what?
Please help,
Thanks in Advance,
Belles
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HAVE + GOT, should be grammatically incorrect, but has come to be accepted.
At some time during the late 19th Century, HAVE (as a content verb), the primary verb of possession in English began to be displaced in some varieties by the perfected Informational Aspect forms of GET – the primary verb of receiving or obtaining, HAVE + GOTTEN. This substitution is a logical one, as something that is possessed must have been previously obtained or received.
During the 20th Century some varieties experienced a widespread reduction in verbal forms, dropping the past participle as a separate form and using the præterite for both. This change, which is still continuing, has been especially strong in the varieties of the United Kingdom and Ireland, where use of the past participle is in many cases the exception rather than the norm. In other English speaking areas, the change has been considerably less, with past participle forms being retained in most usage. One notable exception is HAVE + GOT.
HAVE + GOTTEN, as the perfected informational of get, with its meaning of receive or obtain is near universal in North American and African dialects and still present in some higher registers within the UK, with others using HAVE + GOT universally (Australia and New Zealand are not mentioned as the prevalence of the participle replacement depends greatly on when the speaker or their immediate ancestors immigrated from the UK).
HAVE + GOT, as a verbal form expressing possession (with GOT in lieu of GOTTEN) appears to be universal. It is the preferred manner of expressing possession in the UK and even though fully inflected HAVE is the predominate form in North America, HAVE + GOT still enjoys widespread use.
In much the same way that HAVE + GOT has supplanted or augmented HAVE as an expression of possession, it too, has done so for modal HAVE. Modal HAVE, usually expressing an obligative mood, is fully supplanted by HAVE + GOT in some varieties (usually those in which possessive HAVE + GOT has replaced possessive HAVE), while in others it holds equal semantic value, and in others still, expresses a higher degree of obligation than HAVE.
HAVE+GOT is only used in the present tense. In future and past tenses, HAVE is used.
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Thank you:)) That’s exactly what I needed. Belles