Dear friends,
I’m Naza, I have difficult in using and understanding of present perfect continues. Here are the sentences:
She has been training the children
She has been trained the children
Could anybody explain those sentence please?
Many thanks,
Naza
Dear Naza,
Let me try to explain this way
in the fist sentence you are talking about SHE who is training.(Doing it from some time in past and is still training)
in the second you probably want to say SHE received the training.
I fact I feel the second sentence has to be “SHE HAS BEEN TRAINED BY THE CHILDREN”.
This is what happens when the voice changes from active to passive.
Regards,
Prabhakar.C
Trainer.
Dear Prabhakar,
Thank you very much for your explanation and I really am glad to meet a trainer here. But I found very often those form on news. I meant the form were “Subject+has/have+been+V-3” and “Subject+has/have+been+V-Ing”
I saw that V-Ing is Present Perfect continuous tense. But what is V-3 mean?
Good,
Before I explain that try to answer this. " I am Married. (NOW)"
Try to understand the Verb(action word) over here.
The same can also be used as " I have been married (FOR QUITE SOMETIME)"
This is quite different from " I Married "(SOMETIME BACK) and “I have been marrying.” (ACTION STARTED IN PAST AND STILL GOING ON)( Both Immoral and Illegal) :lol: 
This is the classic case where the subject (who did it) and object (on whom was it done) interchange.
That is nothing but change of Voice.
All the V-3 can also be used as adjectives that explain the state or condition of the subject in a sentense.
Look at the examples below:-
I have been training Prabhakar.(YOU are the TRAINER here).
I have been trained by Prabhakar.(here YOU are the TRAINEE).
Torsten can help us with further clarifications.
Regards,
Prabhakar.C
Trainer.
Hi Prabhakar,
I got the active and passive sentences. But still confuse with V-3. Please see the sentence: “Akbar since 1996 has been given and trained the children”
Which form the sentence is? the two V-3’s are showing experience and the activity has been stopped. It is equal as present perfect?
Thank you
Naza
Naza, as a native speaker of British English, I note that your second sentence (“She has been trained the children”) is wrong. This is because the verb “to train” needs a subject to perform it - if She has been trained, it must be BY the children.
The second point is about time. If she has been training the children, it means it is ongoing. It is likely to still be happening, because ‘has been’ and ‘ing’ make it a past continuous phrase.
If she has been trained by the children, the ‘ed’ means it has entirely passed, and the process has finished. For example, if she had finished training the children, you would say “She has trained the children”.
I hope that makes sense. It’s difficult to go backwards when I know how my language works automatically.
Hi Glitterfairy25,
Thank you so much, I got your point.
Naza
Hi,
I’ve been recently preparing for Cambridge ESOL examinations and I’ve come across an interesting - as well as confusing me a bit - expression: to be pleasurable.
When Filling some ‘word-transformation’ exercise, I wrote ‘pleasant’ in a gap where I should have written: ‘pleasurable’ as some word transformated from ‘please’.
My question is: what’s the difference between ‘pleasurable’ and ‘pleasant’?
I look forward to your reply.
Have a nice day 
I need help regarding this confusing sentences: What is/are the differences??
in the fist sentence you are talking about SHE who is training.(Doing it from some time in past and is still training)
in the second you probably want to say SHE received the training.
I fact I feel the second sentence has to be “SHE HAS BEEN TRAINED BY THE CHILDREN”.
Thanks Compman.
The second may also be, “She has been trained to look after and/or to train the children.”