Please which of the tenses is correct? I hear folks using any of them interchangeably.
Besides, can I substitute a culprit for a miscreant? I ask this because they seem almost the same or is there a nuance?
Thanks Torsten for your assistance,
But the above portion has been left unaswered.
One more help.
Thanks.
Did is always followed by the based verb (the infinitive).[YSaerTTEW443543]
TOEIC short conversations: Talking about utility expenses[YSaerTTEW443543]
The tenses of the two verbs should match, so it should be “saw”. “see” is wrong. You may be mishearing people saying “The man came to see him”, which is correct because the infinitive “see” is required in that pattern.
Hi, Dozy thanks.
One more question.
Is the INFINITIVE the same as the BASE FORM?
And is the TO-INFINITIVE the same as the INFINITIVE VERB?
Hi, Dozy thanks.
One more question.
Is the INFINITIVE the same as the BASE FORM?
And is the TO-INFINITIVE the same as the INFINITIVE VERB?
Conceptually, the “base form” is the unmarked/uninflected form of a verb, such as is listed in a dictionary. Conceptually, the base form does not have practical use in sentences, but some verb forms that are used in sentences are identical to the base form. The bare infinitive is always identical to the base form.
The “to-infinitive” is simply the infinitive preceded by the word “to”, as occurs in various patterns. I don’t know what you mean by “INFINITIVE VERB”, as distinct from infinitive generally.