Nessie
August 17, 2008, 9:04am
1
Hi,
I have a query about transitive verbs: Is the rule ‘after a transitive verb, there must be an object’ absolute? Please have a look at this:
Susan is a teacher. She’s heard that in the UK, they have a very good educational system, so she really want to come there to teach .
=> The transitive verb ‘teach’ has no object in this case, is it correct or incorrect?
Many thanks
Nessie
Atomos
August 17, 2008, 10:57am
2
Hi,
No, that rule is not absolute. There’s something called “objectless transitive” in which it’s not necessary to specify who or what she teaches. This issue was thoroughly discussed on Englishforums.
Link: englishforums.com/English/Wh … d/Post.htm
Cf. Caesar’s comment “I came, I saw, I conquered”, after his victory at the battle of Zela: the object of “conquer” is implicit.
MrP