Is there any particular difference between the use of to-infinitive and bare infinitive in BrE and AmE?
And the same question about the ing-forms - are they used differently or identically?
Thanks a lot in advance.
Hi T Cat
One tendency that comes immediately to mind, for example, is that in AmE we tend to say “help someone do something” whereas I believe it might be more typical in BE to say “help someone to do something”. This my personal opinion on something I see as a difference in frequency of usage.
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Hi,
I think the additional ‘to’ is really a matter of choice in British English rather than typical.
Alan
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I wonder why I expected exactly that sort of comment from you, Alan.
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I really don’t get the point of that remark. I ran it through aloud to myself and that’s the conclusion I came to. It’s as simple as that.
So, are you saying that you think the frequency of usage (with and without the word “to”) would be about 50-50 in BE?
I’m asking because I have found the difference in frequency of usage to be quite noticeable. I’d say the general tendency in AmE would be to choose “help someone do” far more often than you Brits do. However, it may well be possible to narrow this difference down to more specific usage situations.
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Does it refer to “help someone do” alone? Are there are other examples, like:
To go on like this was dangerous.
Her plan was now to drive to Bath during the night.
I have never learnt to read or write.
He was too tired to work.
Joe is a person to lean on.
He began to feel some curiosity.
Can ‘to’ be omitted in AmE in any of the cases or maybe elsewhere?
Hi T Cat
I was referring only to the construction “help someone do”.
The only thing that strikes me as being different in your other sentences is the spelling of the word “learnt” – we use “learned” in AmE.
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Thank you a lot:)