Split Infinitives & Terminal Prepositions

From Delanceyplace.com (well worth subscribing to):

In today’s excerpt - certain grammatical “rules” that are widely viewed as correct come from the invalid application of grammatical rules from Classical Latin and Greek to the English language by British authors writing hundreds of years ago. Though they have been routinely violated by writers from Shakespeare to Hemingway, two such “rules” are the prohibitions against split infinitives and ending a sentence with a preposition:

"The first prohibition against the split infinitive occurs in an 1834 article by an author identified only as “P.” After that, increasingly over the course of the nineteenth century, a “rule” banning split infinitives began ricocheting from
grammar book to grammar book, until every self-conscious English-speaker ‘knew’ that to put a word between ‘to’ and a verb in its infinitive was barbaric.

"The split-infinitive rule may represent mindless prescriptivism’s greatest height. It was foreign. (It was almost certainty based on the inability to split infinitives in Latin and Greek, since they consist of one word only.) It had been routinely violated by the great writers in English; one 1931 study found split infinitives in English literature from every century, beginning with the fourteenth-century epic poem Sir Gawain and the Green Knight, through wrongdoers such as William Tyndale, Oliver Cromwell, Samuel Pepys, Daniel Defoe, John Donne, Benjamin Franklin, Samuel Johnson, Edmund Burke, Samuel Taylor Coleridge, Elizabeth Barrett Browning, and others.

"Rewording split infinitives can introduce ambiguity: ‘He failed entirely to comprehend it’ can mean he failed entirely, or he comprehended, but not entirely. Only putting ‘entirely’ between ‘to’ and ‘comprehend’ can convey clearly ‘he comprehended most, but not all.’ True, sentences can be reworded to work around the problem (‘He failed to comprehend everything’), but there is no reason to do so. While many prescriptive rules falsely claim to improve readability and clarity, this one is worse, introducing a problem that wasn’t there in the first place. Yet as split infinitives in fact became more common in nineteenth-century writing, condemnations of it grew equally strongly. The idea that ‘rules’ were more important than history, elegance, or actual practice … held writers and speakers in terror of making them. …

"Why is it ‘wrong’ to end a sentence with a preposition? … Who, upon seeing a
cake in the office break room, says, ‘For whom is this cake?’ instead of ‘Who’s the cake for?’ Where did this rule come from?

"The answer will surprise even most English teachers: John Dryden, the seventeenth-century poet less well known as an early, influential stickler. In a 1672 essay, he criticized his literary predecessor Ben Jonson for writing ‘The bodies that these souls were frightened from.’ Why the prepositional bee in Dryden’s syntactical bonnet? This pseudo-rule probably springs from the same source many others do: the classical languages. Dryden said he liked to compose in Latin and translate into English, as he valued the precision and clarity he believed Latin required of writers. The preposition-final construction is impossible in Latin. Hence: it is impossible in English. Confused by his logic? Linguists remain so to this day. But once Dryden proclaimed the rule, it made its way into the first generation of English usage books roughly a century later and thence into the minds of two hundred years of English teachers and copy editors.

“The rule has no basis in clarity (‘Who’s that cake for?’ is perfectly clear); history (it was made up from whole cloth); literary tradition (Shakespeare, Jane Austen, Samuel Johnson, Lord Byron, Henry Adams, Lewis Carroll, James Joyce, and dozens of other great writers have violated it); or purity (it isn’t native to English but probably stolen from Latin; clause-final prepositions exist in English’s cousin languages such as Danish and Icelandic). Many people know that the Dryden rule is nonsense. From the great usage-book writer Henry Fowler in the early twentieth century, usage experts began to caution readers to ignore it. The New York Times flouts it. The ‘rule’ should be put to death, but it may never be. Even those who know it is ridiculous observe it for fear of annoying others.”

Author: Robert Lane Greene
Title: You Are What You Speak
Publisher: Delacorte Press
Date: Copyright 2011 by Robert Lane Greene
Pages: 33-34, 24-25

I know some people I’m going to send this to!

Thanks for sharing, MM.

Thank you, Mr.M. Indeed, I came to better understand some things.
Regards.

Good find M. These are but a few of the ‘false rules’ that various authors have applied to English over the centuries. Luckily in recent decades many of these have been set aside as being the asinine ridiculous ideas they are. Unfortunately there are still so many that seem to be further and further promoted each year, especially in the ESL community.

I think the one that gets to me the most is the insistence against using the passive voice. There is no linguistic or stylistic justification for this yet many many coursebooks and grammar guides act as if there should be a near all out prohibition on the passive voice despite the fact that it is the most efficient form to use in probably more situations than the active voice.

Hello, OB. It took me a while to get back to this thread, but I had to search though my old files to find the example I was looking for. The excerpt below, from an educated native speaker’s unpublished (thank goodness!) travelogue, exemplifies why I encourage writers - even scientific writers - to try to use active voice over passive voice when they can. I know passive has its legitimate uses, but this is how some writers can fall into its trap:

Starbuck’s was one of only two eateries in our terminal area. Breakfast was ordered at the establishment as a result, with an orange juice, banana, yogurt parfait, and coffee priced at a whopping nine dollars and sixty-five cents. The day’s adventure was typed while seated next to our gate and looking out onto the airline traffic coming and going. A woman appeared at the Southwest counter while the notes were being written and our boarding passes were secured at seven-forty. The notes were up to date at seven fifty-seven, with an hour and a half wait to be seated on the next leg.

“Wow!” was thought when the the text which was quoted was read.

That’s definitely a horrible example!

I wonder why anyone would feel the need to put an entire paragraph into the passive. It makes me think that this is probably a really boring person to go on vacation with!

Plus they obviously have terrible taste in coffee :wink:


It’s often overlooked that every structure and form in every language has a purpose. People don’t always understand what that purpose is and thus don’t use the forms properly.

The purpose for using active versus passive voice is emphasis. If you want to emphasize the doer of an action you use the active voice. If you want to emphasize that which the verb does something to, you use the passive. It’s all about which information you think is more important (who does what or what is done)

Compare “I made dinner for you!” (emphasis on ‘I’) with “A crime was committed.” (emphasis on crime)