nobody has come vs nobody has came

English as a Second Language English Vocabulary, Grammar and Idioms
1

hi

need help here

“nobody has come to pick up the book” and “nobody has came to pick up the book”
which one of those sentences is correct?

if both are correct ,could someone explains why and their usage ?

the 2nd question
“i have never drive in this city” or “i never drive in this city” or " i have never driven in this city"

which of these can be use to indicate the present?

correct me if im wrong in writing the tenses

Thank you very much

2

Hi,

These are examples of the present perfect simple tense, which is made up as follows: have + past participle. In that case we can use:

I have never driven and nobody has come.

The present simple tense would be: I never drive.

Alan

3

Hi

So you mean " nobody has came" ??

when should we use present perfect and present simple? I am a bit confused by both

Thank you

4

No, ‘Nobody has come’.

Alan