We seem to be talking at cross-purposes. I know perfectly well what the expression “in a sense” means, what I don’t know and what nobody and no native source seems to be able to explain to me is the difference (if any) between "in a sense that" (no comma between “in a sense” and “that”) and “in the sense that” followed by a noun (also called “nominal”) clause. Here are some examples for you, guys, to better understand what I want:
1) in a sense that + noun clause
a) "And when I speak out on an issue, it’s because somebody needs to speak out on the issue, and I can do it without fear, [color=red]in a sense that I’m not here trying to burnish my image.
(source: Dick Cheney)
b) President Bush is right [color=red]in a sense that you do need partners that are willing for peace, and we do need to get to the stage where in the end there is a negotiation that is successful, based on the two state solution
(source:washington post)
c) I’m not aware of any grading except in the sense of how they function. It’s a question an educational psychologist would be able to answer, [color=red]in a sense that grading is the degree they are able to integrate or not into a mainstream school.
(BBC Documentaries)
-
in the sense that + noun clause
I think the burden of being a prime minister does, I think, grind you down. Clearly we saw with Margaret Thatcher, another British prime minister who became very much a world figure, that even with her it began I think to grind her down [color=red]in the sense that she lost a bit of her political judgement, she got Britain involved in the poll tax - that was the tax on every individual in the country.
(Nick Jones, a BBC political expert)
b) “The prime minister said that it would make a big difference politically and legally if Saddam refused to allow in the UN inspectors,” record the minutes. “Regime change and WMD were linked [color=red]in the sense that it was the regime that was producing the WMD . . . If the political context were right, people would support regime change.”
(Minutes of a political meeting at Downing Street, dated May 2005. Source: timesonline.co.uk)
c) Frege sees proof not fundamentally as just any structure of logical derivation, but as a form of justification or grounding. From this perspective, basic truths are unprovable [color=red]in the sense that they cannot be grounded or given a justification by being derived from other truths
Tyler Burge (Tyler Burge (born 1946, Ph.D., Princeton University, 1971) is a Professor of Philosophy at UCLA.
So I repeat my question - which of the following statements do you find correct:
-
[color=blue]there’s no generalization, no differentiation between the two and native speakers use the phrases “in a/the sense that + noun-clause” indiscriminately, in other words - it is just a matter of individual preferences and there’s no point giving it a thought at all
-
[color=blue]the indefinite article is used when a situation/issue is looked at or considered just from a particular point of view or in a particular way (among others), whereas the definite article is used when a statement, situation, etc. is looked at or considered in a particular or specified way which is thought by the author/speaker to be the only one worthy of consideration or the one that is more important than all others, which s/he wants to particularly single out and emphasize
If any of you have any thoughts on this - they will be most welcome. Thanks.