"ignore vs "be ignorant of"

English as a Second Language English Vocabulary, Grammar and Idioms
1

Hi,
1/ Are “ignore” and “be ignorant of” completely same in meaning?
2/ How about “should” and “ought to”? do they mean the same?

Many thanks in advance!
Nessie :slight_smile:

2

Hi Nessie,

IMO, 1/ to ignore means to disregard while “be ignorant of” suggests “without knowledge of”. 2/ I don’t think any two different words could mean 100% the same thing but sometimes they are exchangeable in usage such as “should” and “ought to”. However, strictly speaking, ‘should’ is an aux. while ‘ought to’ a verb. Also, the latter takes on a sense of obligation while the former bears it less.

Haihao

3

Isn’t “ought to” a quasi/semi-auxiliary?

4

Oh, yes, I agree with you. It’s an auxiliary as well. Sorry, my mistake.

5

Thanks a lot, Haihao and Molly, and may I have your idea, Amy?