I have them all fooled?

Hi everyone!

Does “I have them all fooled” mean “I fooled all of them”?
Is the first sentence grammatically correct? If it is, are there any other similar sentences people would use?
Since “have my hair cut” means asking someone else to cut my hair, I was wondering if the first sentence implies “I asked some one to trick them”.

Thanks! :slight_smile:

Yes and yes and it could.

Hello,

What does that mean; "I have them all fooled’’?

Hi Puppet,

‘I have them all fooled’ means simply ‘I have tricked all of them’.

Alan

  1. I fooled all of them or
  2. asked some one to trick them.
    Could be either.

Hi,

I think it is unlikely that ‘have’ is used here to suggest that someone else is doing the fooling for you.

Alan

Now I think I got the idea. Thanks everyone!

Hi Mr. Alan,

Do you mean that it’s like the phrase which says ; I’ve played with their minds. ???

Hi Puppet,

Yes, you have the right idea.

Alan

Thank you, sir Alan.

According to Mr. Alan’s reply, is Mr. Micawber’s reply wrong?