How long have you been having a headache?

[Pechorin]

Hello.
I Once have been advised not to use present continuous with different kinds of aches. For example, someone has a headache, they are given a painkiller and after a while the doctor asks: Do you still have the headache? (Not “Are you still having the headache?”)

I wonder if present perfect continuous can be used in a similar context:
“How long have you been having a headache?”
Is the question correct and idiomatic?

[Beeesneees]

That is incorrect.
english-test.net/forum/ftopic141302.html
english-test.net/forum/ftopic120323.html

[Pechorin]

Thank you for the links.
Answering a question about ‘continuity’ (present perfect progressive) of the suffering when the present perfect cannot show it you wrote ““I have a …”/“I’ve had a …” though the second is ambiguous and in order to clarify that the headache is continuing you’d need something like, “I’ve had a headache for two days and I’m not over it yet.”

What would be a better way of asking someone whose headache started some time ago and they still have it:
a) How long have you had a headache?
b) How long do you have a headache?

[Anglophile]

@Pechorin

… What would be a better way of asking someone whose headache started some time ago and they still have it?
a) How long have you had a headache?
b) How long do you have a headache?

Neither; it has to be: How long have you been having (experiencing/suffering from) a headache?

(The answer, according to NSE, should specify a short period, for a person cannot have a single headache for a very long time, i.e. one week, one fortnight etc)

[Beeesneees]

How long have you had a headache?" is correct, Pechorin.
“How long have you been having a headache” sounds stilted and awkward, and would mark the speaker out as a non-native speaker of English.

[Pechorin]

Thank you!

[Anglophile]

Anglophile wrote:
So, I think the original post No.1 could also be: I have been having headaches for over three days now.

Beeesneees wrote:
Yes, if it’s a series of headaches at different times over a number of days.
Not if it is one long continuous headache, though.

James M wrote:
Yes, I have checked some books, and maybe (repeat: maybe):

“I HAVE HAD a headache for the past three days” may mean (in some

circumstances) that the headache has ended.

Mona: How are you feeling?
Tom: Well, I have had a headache for the past three days, BUT it seems to be getting better. In fact, I think it’s gone.

“I HAVE BEEN HAVING a headache for the past three days” may mean that the headache continues:

Mona: How are you feeling?
Tom: I have been having a headache for the past three days, so I plan to see a doctor tomorrow.

---

That book pointed out, however, that some native speakers might not make that distinction. That is, they might interpret “have had/ have been having a headache for the last three days” as interchangeable.

Now, the question is not about ‘a headache’ or ‘headaches’, but about the use of the present perfect progressive tense construction. Strangely enough, an onlooker can discern how InE, BrE and AmE are coming to the same view here.

[Pechorin]

@Anglophile

Now, the question is not about ‘a headache’ or ‘headaches’, but about the use of the present perfect progressive tense construction.

To be more precise if this construction can be used asking about a headache which started some time ago and still persists.
From what I’ve leaned, the answer is ‘no’: it’s much better to use present perfect.
Is that what you mean saying that “InE, BrE and AmE are coming to the same view here»?

[Anglophile]

Unfortunately, NO.

Yes, if it’s a series of headaches at different times over a number of days.

You agree, James asserts and I reiterate that the present perfect progressive is also possible. You may re-visit the links you have provided. You are now using terms like ‘if’, ‘much better’ etc, which is indicative of the possibility. When (many) others say something is possible, you need to think twice before you declare what you say alone is acceptable. There are hundreds watching the discussion. That’s why I tell you not to be imposing. You are not considered to be above or more than the acknowledged speakers/users/grammarians whether it be in InE, BrE or AmE. As I have said elsewhere, what a native speaker uses cannot always be acceptable and standard in today’s global handling of the language. It could be even region-centric. So long as one is able to communicate one’s ideas unambiguously, one’s English is acceptable. You can’t expect everybody to follow you. It will remain only an ambition. Please BE patient. Allow others also to take part with their frank and unreserved views. Your domination makes most of them utterly diffident and disappointed.

[Beeesneees]

I repeat:

@Beeesneees

How long have you had a headache?" is correct, Pechorin.
“How long have you been having a headache” sounds stilted and awkward, and would mark the speaker out as a non-native speaker of English.

[Pechorin]

Thank you, Bee, I got it.
Now be prepared to be accused of being imposing, dominating, etc.

[Anglophile]

Beeesneees wrote:
Yes, if it’s a series of headaches at different times over a number of days.
Not if it is one long continuous headache, though.

This confirms that you agree to the use of PPP tense form. (See your original post)

And, James is an NSE, an American more than 65 years old. He has quoted a reliable source as well. In spite of all this, you are determined to cling to it. It’s easy to impose your notions on people who lack the faculty of thinking. BYE!

[Beeesneees]

I never disagreed with use of PPP tense, but I DO disagree with this:
“How long have you been having a headache?”

I’ve never had a problem with:
"How long have you been having headaches?

Perhaps you havben’t read the answers as carefully as you think you have and you are the person who is trying to impose your views on someone else.