He still have vs. he still has

which one is correct? he still have the will to… or he still has the will to …thanks in advance

He still has the will to do it.[YSaerTTEW443543]

TOEIC listening, photographs: A friendly greeting[YSaerTTEW443543]

seconded

Not too difficult, right?

If it happens to be interrogative, both are possible, I suppose, at least in spoken English although the questioner didn’t finish his/her sentence.

He still have the will to do it?

He still has the will to do it?

I agree.

He still have the will to do it?

He still has the will to do it?/Has he still the will to do it?

Or: He still has the will to do it? (for e.g.)

It might be heard in an interrupted sentence:

  1. Does……he still have the will to do it?

but I would be surprised to hear it on its own:

  1. He still have the will to do it? / He still have the will to do it.

— except perhaps in a rural dialect where “have” took the place of “has”.

All the best,

MrP

I get a feeling you hang around only with those who use full sentences. Am I right?

“noun/pronoun + still…?” (with the auxiliary ellipted -including the auxiliary “does”) is very, very common in native speech.

He still working for…?
She stilll married to…?
You still coming out tonight?
They still have the car?

And on, and on.

Note the difference, though:

  1. He still have the will to do it?
  2. He still working for…?
  3. She still married to…?
  4. You still coming out tonight?
  5. They still have the car?

Examples 2 to 4 omit the verb “be”, not “do”; while in example 5, the removal of “do” leaves a perfectly normal sentence.

Omission of “does” in #1 on the other hand presents “have” in a different role, and is therefore quite different: it would surprise the addressee, because the resulting sentence can’t be distinguished from a performance error for:

  1. He still has the will to do it?

I would say that omission of initial “does” in a question is very, very uncommon, in spoken BrE. But if you have found some examples in the BNC, I’ll be happy to look at them.

MrP

Hi Mr P

The omission of does could occur in a German learner´s usage of English, as do causes some problems .

I agree it would not be used by native speakers. But if there is a region where it is used I am ready to stand corrected.

cheers stew.t.

Yes; I did wonder whether it might turn up in rural dialects, e.g. in the speech of older people in the West Country.

All the best,

MrP