I’ve been watching the BBC News and they mentioned something about Rudolph Hess, one of Adolf Hitler’s closest associates. He died shortly after or during WWII and was buried in a grave.
The reporter said: He has laid in this grave since he died./ Shouldn’t that be: ‘He has lain in this grave since his death.’?
However, I looked it up in a dictionary and it says: in the past tense ‘laid’ (from lay) is often wrongly used for lay or lain (from lie).
I think it would be correct to say: ‘We were lying in bed’ or ‘I lay in bed’
But I think it would be wrong to say: ‘We’re laying in bed’, actually, I’m pretty sure that this last sentence is wrong. I think, however, it wouldn’t be wrong to say: ‘Peter, would you please lay the table?’ or ‘Oh, I laid your book on your desk.’
Thanks MM, but I have no problem with the other verbs, but there’s a book by William Faulkner that reminds me of Lie-lay-lain, it’s called ‘As I lay dying’. Correct? I have no problem with any of them, but I just wanted to mention what I’d heard on BBC-News.
Again, thanks MM.
Many native speakers have problems with these verbs too. Confusion between “lay” and “lie” (sense 1) is rife, and I’d hate to even guess at the percentage who would understand that the past participle of “lie” (sense 1) is “lain”.