Grammar question

Hi guys

I have two questions regarding the sentence below. Is the sentence grammatically correct? If so, why?

The appraiser had to extend the search due to the limited data available for the this type of property.

In general, I can see why the first part of the sentence is correct because the appraiser “had” to extend her/his search in order to get more data. However, i can’t figure out why the second part is correct (if it is correct). Is it because the word “due” is an adjective and it modifies the noun phrase “the limited data”, but then what about the word “available”, what does it modify? Or is the entire second part a noun phrase? If so, it would make sense why you wouldn’t need a verb.

Thanks for the responding.

To begin with, Macmillan defines ‘due to’ as a preposition (=because of).
Putting aside what modifies what in the sentence, it sounds fine to me: “The appraiser had to extend the search because of the limited data available/as it is the limited data available…” Legalese…

Assuming that the final ‘the’ in the sentence is a typo and should not be there, then Eugene is right to say that the sentence is fine and the ‘hidden’ verb is ‘is’@
The appraiser had to extend the search - he had to extend it because there is limited data.

***** NOT A TEACHER *****

Hello, Huyn:

I love to diagram sentences. So may I join your thread?

As Eugene said, “due to” is now parsed (analyzed) as a preposition. But for a few strict teachers, “due” is an adjective, as you said. Thus, your sentence (if you want to be strictly correct) should use “because of.”

Now let’s parse it, shall we?

The appraiser = the complete subject
had = verb
to extend = infinitive
the search =object
because of = preposition that modifies the infinitive “to search.”
the limited data available = noun phrase that is the object of the preposition.

(“available,” I feel, is an adjective that modifies “data” or maybe “limited data.” I believe that you could also say “the available limited data.” But I think that there is a subtle difference. Here is an example from a grammar book:

The visible stars = the stars that are always visible.
The stars visible = the stars that are visible at this particular time.

for this type of property = prepositional phrase that modifies the adjective “available.”

Other members may parse it differently.


Thank you guys, I didn’t know that “due to” is considered as a preposition. It makes sense now


  1. Polling is stopped due to out of order of voting machine.
  2. Polling is stopped because of out of order of voting machine.
    Are these two sentences OK and mean the same?

Polling is stopped due to the voting machine being out of order.
Polling has stopped because of an out of order voting machine.

I do not know what a ‘voting machine’ is or the purpose it serves. It may be better to use ‘postponed’ or ‘halted’ rather than ‘stopped’

In India, we are not now using the old method of casting vote.
The election authority provides electronic voting machine so that
people can cast their vote by just pressing the button having the symbol of their candidate.

We use the term “voting machine” in the US too. In our state it is an electronic touchscreen, which provides no written record of one’s vote and no way of recounting votes in case of any dispute, so I have no idea if my vote was even actually recorded. Can you tell I don’t like our voting machines?

Thank you for the explanation.

Your choice of verbs and verb tenses (particularly the way you use ‘to be+ ing form’) in that passage shows really clearly that you are using Indian English. It does not sound natural to a Western ‘English’ ear.

I would have said:
"In India we no longer use the old method of casting a vote (at a ballot box). Instead, the election authority provides an electronic voting machine and people cast their votes by pressing the button which carries the symbol of their candidate.