"‘Over-reporting’ is when the subjects say they use the standard form more than they actually do. ‘Under-reporting’ is when subjects say they use the non-standard form more than they actually do (see Wardhaugh 200-201).
Trudgill found than women tend to over-report and men tend to under-report (1983: 89-92). This fits in with the hypercorrectness analyzed by Labov."
It seems to me that people would generally not intentionally or knowingly “under-report” or “over-report” a certain usage.
If done unknowingly, how on earth should someone be able to say whether they under-report or over-report?
If someone does happen to do this knowingly, it seems to me that your question is thus akin to asking people to tell you that they lie about their use of language.
I might if it were in a PM and not here and off-topic.
Back on-topic:
Amy, have you ever recorded your speaking voice on tape and then been surprised by the result in any way? Have you ever thought that you spoke in one way, and then been later surprised to find that your intuition wasn’t exactly correct?
The thread question is in that area of questioning. Not that complicated really, and certainly not suggesting that people are being deceitful.