Do you have any children?
vs
Have you got any children?
Both are correct and have the same meaning.
To some, the inclusion of “got” is redundant… and that makes sense:
“Have you some peas?” is a a perfectly fine way to ask someone if he or she has some peas – “got” isn’t necessary.
But in practice, “Have you got…?” and “Do you have…?” are both fine, as previously stated.
Excuse me.
It’s said that “I have got a ball.” and “Have you got a ball?” are only used in Bratain English.
Americans don’t use like this. They just say “I have a ball.” and “Do you have a ball?”
Is this phenomenon truly exist?
Please tell me.
Thanks a lot!
Hi Binxyz
Welcome to this forum.
Hi Cinderella_Sz
You can see this web page:
english-test.net/forum/ftopi … tml#197834
Red rag to a bull time for me!
GOT… a word that should be removed from the British language, and should never, ever, be taught to children.
'NufSaid!
Kitos. 
Americans don’t use like this. They just say “I have a ball.” and “Do you have a ball?”
Who told you that ? The same person who taught you English grammar?
- Your alternatives are exactly the same.
- You should have started a new thread for a new topic.
i think both of the alternatives are correct, however, have and got in the same sentence is a bit wordy, no?
Just in case you want the background on this…
"At some time during the late 19th Century, HAVE (as a content verb), the primary verb of possession in English began to be displaced in some varieties by the perfected Informational Aspect forms of GET – the primary verb of receiving or obtaining, HAVE + GOTTEN. This substitution is a logical one, as something that is possessed must have been previously obtained or received. During the 20th Century some varieties experienced a widespread reduction in verbal forms, dropping the past participle as a separate form and using the præterite for both. This change, which is still continuing, has been especially strong in the varieties of the United Kingdom and Ireland, where use of the past participle is in many cases the exception rather than the norm. In other English speaking areas, the change has been considerably less, with past participle forms being retained in most usage. One notable exception is HAVE + GOT. HAVE + GOTTEN, as the perfected informational of get, with its meaning of receive or obtain is near universal in North American and African dialects and still present in some higher registers within the UK, with others using HAVE + GOT universally (Australia and New Zealand are not mentioned as the prevalence of the participle replacement depends greatly on when the speaker or their immediate ancestors immigrated from the UK). HAVE + GOT though, as a verbal form expressing possession (with GOT in lieu of GOTTEN) appears to be universal. It is the preferred manner of expressing possession in the UK and even though fully inflected HAVE is the predominate form in North America, HAVE + GOT still enjoys widespread use.
In much the same way that HAVE + GOT has supplanted or augmented HAVE as an expression of possession, it too, has done so for modal HAVE. Modal HAVE, a Class IIc usually expressing an obligative mood, is fully supplanted by HAVE + GOT in some varieties (usually those in which possessive HAVE + GOT has replaced possessive HAVE), while in others it hold equal semantic value, and in others still, expresses a higher degree of obligation than HAVE. While not expressing a perfected idea, HAVE + GOT is declined in much the same way as a perfected informational would be except with a more limited flexibility. Agreement with person and number is maintained via the auxiliary HAVE, allowing for the forms HAVE + GOT and HAS + GOT. HAVE + GOT however, cannot be declined for tense nor can it accept subordination from another modal, giving modal HAVE + GOT considerably less versatility than possessive HAVE + GOT or modal HAVE."
That’s from a paper on modals, but the info is the same for the possessive usage as given in the original question. Like the modal usage, it should be noted that HAVE + GOT isn’t as versatile as have so that you have to use HAVE for the future and past and anything in the durational aspect.
Either way, you should avoid using forms like “Have you a pen?” as this is incorrect in either form.
I am traveling on the train vs I am traveling in the train
please tell me which is correct…?
Ganesh
This is really a great site.
I will tell my friends about it.
EEEEEEEEEEEEK !!!
No no no please people !!! … DO NOT leave out the “GOT”
Also … it is a question therefore NOT “some” but “any” …
e.g.
Have you got any peas?
Why has no one corrected this ???
Though “any” may be more frequent, “some” is not wrong here.
SOME is TOTALLY wrong here Cerberus !!!
Use any for questions and negative statements …
e.g.
Do you have any potatoes?
No, sorry, I do not have any potatoes.
Do you have any potatoes?
Yes, I do have some nice ones over here.
Sorry … you’re wrong however, I do accept native English and that in America things may be different … but then again, the Americans say; Did you do the report yet?
If you don’t believe me, you may read it in The Times:
google.com/search?q=site%3At … some%22%29
I know this “rule” about not using some- in questions; but that is merely a rule of thumb, to be used when you are in doubt, because any is much more common. There are many occasions where you would use some-. A famous (or so I have been told) lesson about some and any goes like this:
- Lady X to her guest: Mr Y, will you have some more tea? (Neutral question.)
- Lady X to her guest: Mr Y, will you have any more tea? (What she means is: please leave now.)
Cerberus has a good point. There is a difference between what is correct and incorrect, and what is tradition in a given variety.
Exception Cerberus and not a rule !!!
“Some” in this context is being used to mean “a quantity of or part of a larger object”.
It is can be used as a more refined way of asking someone if they would like a quantity of what is on offer (and used nearly always in the higher society of years gone by)… Thus the connection in your example with “Lady X”
In high society it could be seen as very rude to ask using the “any” rule. No one would expect a high society Lady or Gentleman to want “any”, rather they would only ever want “some”.
There are many forms of this use:
Would you like some …
Will you partake in some …
Might I offer you some …
There has been a great infuence on the development of the English language as we see it today and this development has produced many written works, dictionaries and such which nowadays “are taken as proof” that something is correct. The internet itself has contributed greatly to changes in the English language as more and more people use it for reference.
However, even though the language of years ago can still be found in the language used today, in many cases the real meaning/purpose has been long forgotton. “Instances of use” such as in this case should be correctly explained and not explained to ESL students as being a general rule!
Rob