Have I told you lately that I love you?
But why can’t I write “Have I told you late that I love you?” ?
hey debashis … both have different meanings… lately means aroud time you are telling … recently … and late means after the planned or expected …so you cant say " have i told you late that i love you "
To use ‘late’ you would have to sat, ‘have I told you of late that I love you?’
can you explain with some explanations?
I wasn’t used to drive a big car.
He suggested me to try the main car park
Too many mathematics is usually taught in schools.
I am angry with her lying.
I was red ---- anger at his remarks.
People have always been kind of me.
antonyms of common,loyal,formal,mature,sensitive are uncommon,irloyal, informal,immature, nonsensitive respectively.
The passive structure of “They believe him to be dangerous” is “He is believed to be dangerous be them”
they elected me like president
I wasn’t used to driving a big car.
He suggested that I try the main car park.
Too much mathematics is usually taught in schools.
I am angry with her for lying.
I was red with anger at his remarks.
People have always been kind to me.
He is believed to be dangerous by them.
Hey beeesneees, u sound brilliant to me …let me take a test of you
Is action in the following context in progress?
->she has not been criyng, she has been cutting onions.[/size]
if yes … can we use present continous instead…(why yes, why not)
if no … can we use past continous instead … (why not … why yes )
Sorry, I don’t take tests here.
However, I will point out that in your message:
‘u’ should be ‘you’
‘let me take a test of you’ should be ‘let me test you’
‘criyng’ should be ‘crying’.
In the sentence you quote, the action has finished.
I was asked this question in a competitive exam where I tried to modify this as
“I didn’t use to drive a big car.” Is this wrong?
If not, then here “to” is infinitive marker.
But the way you corrected it as if “to” is a preposition?
However , I have seen many where this sentence
“I used to go there.”(obviously here “to” is an infinitive marker)
please explain.
Hi Debashis1,
In the sentence [color=darkblue]I wasn’t used to driving a big car, the phrase ‘used to’ functions as an adjective and preposition, and is always followed by a gerund or a noun. Note that this form of ‘used to’ is preceded by a form of the verb ‘be’. In other words, the basic structure is this:
- BE+used to+GERUND/NOUN
[i]- I am used to the cold weather now. (‘used to’ followed by a noun)
- I wasn’t used to driving 100 miles per hour when I first moved to Germany. (‘used to’ followed by a gerund)[/i]
The phrase ‘be used to’ means the same thing as ‘be accustomed to’. In order to convert ‘be used to’ to a negative form, you would simply negate the verb ‘be’.
In a sentence such as [i][color=darkblue]I used to drive a Ford, but nowadays I drive a Jaguar[/i], the phrase 'used to' functions as an auxiliary and it is followed the base form of the verb. In other words, the basic structure is this:
- used to+DO
[i]I [b]used to live[/b] in Germany, but now I live in the US. ('used to' followed by the base form of a verb)
He [b]used to have[/b] a lot of hobbies, but nowadays he's so busy with family and work responsibilities that he doesn't have any hobbies at all. ('used to' followed by the base form of a verb)[/i]
When we use 'used to' as an auxiliary, it is followed by the base form of a verb, NOT by a noun or gerund.
No, that’s fine. That would generally be considered the correct way to convert the auxiliary ‘used to’ to the negative form.
[color=darkblue]______________________________________________________________
[size=75]“We love life, not because we are used to living but because we are used to loving.” ~ Friedrich Nietzsche[/size]
Does the adverb (lately ) exist en English ?
You could discover that for yourself with the aid of a Learner’s Dictionary
if action is finished … can we say she was not crying, she was cutting onions ?
yes