Did we meet before vs have we met before

English as a Second Language English Vocabulary, Grammar and Idioms
1

Hi @Anglophile, @Torsten, @Arinker

What is the semantic diffrence between:

  • Did we meet before? and
  • Have we met before?

Thanks in advance.

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2

I think they’re the same.
I believe simply “Have we met?” would be more common than either of those.

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3

Semantically, both mean the same.

  1. Past simple tense. Preferred in AmE though it is used with a specific past time (instead of ‘before’) in BrE.
  2. Present perfect tense. Preferred in BrE as it refers to the past from the present moment.
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4

Thanks for your answer, Arinker.

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5

Thanks for your answer, Anglophile.

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6

Though they essentially mean the same, example 1 might be considered “unsuitable” in the context of writing. It is not wrong, however. There is nothing grammatically wrong with the sentence. The only complaint someone could have is that the sentence could be shorter, crisper. Like another user has pointed out, “Have we met?” is more common. If you want to be polite, you could say, “I’m sorry, have we met?”

Ultimately there’s nothing wrong with sentence 1; but since you mentioned semantics, I just wanted to add that semantics and context go hand in hand, and some editors (or even teachers) might feel compelled to flag that sentence as an error if seen in writing.

The error would be “stylistic,” not grammatical. For instance, consider the example of “and/or.” While most style guides recommend avoiding the use of and/or in formal writing, it is not necessarily an error. Some editors wouldn’t mind; others would say it introduces ambiguity or reduces clarity. Legal documents avoid the use of “and/or” (since it can introduce ambiguity) unless it use is warranted and/or specified.

Sorry for the long response, but “semantics” is quite tricky. Something that is not wrong might be considered unsuitable in certain contexts. Just wanted to highlight that :slight_smile:

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