I should be delighted if he . . . to stay with us next year.
a) comes b) came c) would came
please with the explanation
thanks in advance!
I should be delighted if he . . . to stay with us next year.
a) comes b) came c) would came
please with the explanation
thanks in advance!
I would use âwould comeâ but that doesnât appear to be an option.
Of the options, I would use âcameâ.
[color=blue]I agree that âwould comeâ is a decent choice. But my main comment about this question is that it demonstrates some of the weird grammar of the English language. For example, many native speakers would choose âcameâ, even though it is talking about the future.
I think that he most sensible thing to say would be âI will be delighted if he comes to stayâŚâ.
Surely it must be âcameâ indicating past subjunctive.
Hi Bee,
Does modern grammar accept âcomesâ as the correct choice ?
I see ânext yearâ, it tells me something happens in the future, not present.
Could you confirm the present subjunctive like âcomeâ (not comes) as below is correct or not ?
I should be delighted if he SHOULD COME/ COME to stay with us next year.
You have to choose the right subjunctive to balance the other half. I shall/will be delighted if he come/I should be delighted if he came.
oh yeah, Now I understand. Thank you Alan.
As your explanation, I take that Should is the past tense of Shall. Itâs like a double blades.For balancing the tense, I understood why it should take the past subjunctive (Came/would come) as Bee suggested.
In another hand, It is really confusing me. I just think of the word âshouldâ which is used in present tense like: I should leave. (Iâd better go now).
Any advice when I should treat [should] is the past tense of shall, When I should think of it as an advice for the present in : I should go now.
Why people do not use : [I shall leave] instead [I should leave] for talking about present any more ? (but they still use âShall we go / shall I go ?â)
I am aware that modal verbs have many usages. Maybe, What I asked, the usage of shall in my case above has nothing to do with subjunctive.
I also know the meaning of shall. (thought Iâm not confident enough to say I know its meaning in every context). The teacher once told me, when you use âI/We willâ, you can replace it with âShallâ. Originally, I and We go with shall, but nowadays, will can take place and is accepted.
Hi teachers,
Could you help me to clear my confusion ?
Iâm not looking for a perfect answer, Any opinion is appreciate .
Thank you
âShallâ as a modal verb is used to express a future action with the first person singular and plural. When we say: I shall go now or 'Iâll go now, we simply state that is what we are going to do next. âShouldâ as you have said, started life as the past form of âshallâ and has since then been used to express different meanings. It can express necessity or obligation and that is the sense in your example -
. This means I am obliged to go now and this could be because someone is waiting for me, or example. It could also mean that it is appropriate for me to go now because I have stayed here too, for example.
Thank you Alan.
Beeesneees,
4 is incorrect
1 doesnât make sense. Why would you want to say he looks (now) as if he knew the answer (in the past)?
Beeesneees,
2 and 3 are plausible and logical because they are similes. The latter phrases are used as a means of describing what the former is like.
That does not happen in 1.