Here is a rule i found for None.
Whenever none is used in a sentence the verb form is determined by the contruction “of”.
Consider the following sentence:
None of my friends (is/are) coming to the party.
According to the rule, are should be used since the construction “of” refers to friends (plural).
Am I correct?
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As with your question on majority, none is grammatically singular, but notional concord often-- and often more naturally- draws the plural verb:
None of my friends are coming to the party.
None of the wine was left after the party.
.
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Sorry still not clear…Anyone help :?
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Yankee
4
Hi Techsavvy
That basically means that either the singular or the plural form of the verb can be used. Have a look at this:
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