This means that you knew exactly what the time was because he stopped work at the same time every day - in other words when you saw him stop work then you knew it must be for example 5.30.
I’m new in this forum and this is the first question I ask becuause I was confused when correct answer was finished! “he always” in the present , so, why did we choose “finished” which is a verb in the past…?
Yes, the word ‘always’ is very often found in a present tense sentence. But it can also be used with other tenses.
As Rich7 mentioned, the word ‘could’ is also the past tense of ‘can’.
For example, maybe we’re talking about someone who worked in our company in the past. He retired last year, so he’s not here (in the company) now. In that case, you can talk about what he always did every day when he worked here. And that would all be in the past.
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The word “could” doesn’t neccessarily indicate events in past, is that right? I often found in conversations with native speakers that it rather indicated the probability of something. That is “could” could be used in a situation that contains some uncertainty, and “can” expresses a higher probability of the event.
Hi everybody,
I have the same question as that of Kzie. Is there anyone can explain it for us? How to recognize when “could” refer to probability or the past tense form of “can”?
I still confused about it, so I try to imagine the situation by making this short conversation.
A: Still remember Jack?
B: Of course, who can forget that guy! You could even tell me the time to go home by him.
A: Yeah, he always finished work at exactly the same time everyday.
‘By him’ suggests ‘by watching him’ because when you see him, you know what the time is. It’s similar in construction to 'telling the time by the sun - when the sun shines on a particular point on a sun dial.
“You could tell the time by him because he always finished work at exactly the same time every day.”
i did not understand the sentence. can we tell time by someone?
I understand the sense of the sentence I mean, why “by him” and so on, but I still don’t catch, why the correct answer is finished - past simple and not present simple. Is the explanation of Yankee right in this case. Can’t be both answers correct in that case, if someone mean that this sentence relate to the present?
On the other hand, if we use present simple, then the correct form of the verb might be “finishes” and probably therefore the correct answer here is “finished”. I think that’s the main reason here and not “could” or something else.
Am I right?