When asked to explain his reason for sexually assaulting the victim, the man said that he had a “feeling” that he was “connected” to the victim and believed that they were “meant to be together”.
In mitigation, the man apologised and pleaded for leniency through his interpreter, saying he had to pay for his wife’s upkeep.
For molest, the man may have been jailed up to two years, or fined, or caned, or any combination of the punishments.
In the last paragraph, should it be “molestation” instead?
Thanks!