There’s a difference. It depends on what you’re comparing. Are you comparing who likes candy more, John or myself? Use I. If you’re comparing two things John likes? Candy or myself? Use me.
He likes candy more than I (like candy)
He likes candy more than (he likes) me.
This particular debate has been going on as long as I remember.
To borrow from The Lord of the Rings:
“One rule to rule them all”.
The purpose of language is to communicate, ideally with as little confusion as possible. If something is “grammatically correct” but causes confusion, then it violates the One rule that rules them all.
He likes candy more than me.
(Meaning he likes candy more than I like candy.)
This is by far the most common usage and meaning. Any other meaning causes confusion and violates the One rule than rules them all.
If someone wishes to say “He likes candy more than he likes me.”, then they can state it exactly like that. Or they can find another wording that is clear.
“He likes candy more than me” will be interpreted by the vast majority of native speakers to mean “more than I like candy”. Therefore, by the One rule that rules them all, it is correct.
I fully understand that most teachers teach a bunch of “rules”. I understand that some people are required to take an English exam to enter university or get certain jobs. They need to learn whatever it takes to pass the exam.
But they should understand that most people don’t talk that way. If they are capable of remembering all the hundreds of other exceptions in the English language, then they are capable of remembering an exception like this.
I agree with @NearlyNapping but I decided to look it up in Merriam-Webster. They give a one line definition of “me”, followed by a half page describing the legitimacy of “me” as opposed to “l” in sentences such as this.
But does this lead to ambiguity?
Sometimes.
In the original text, one interpretation is more reasonable than the other, so ambiguity would not generally be a problem.
However, let me change the sentence slightly.
“He likes Mary more than me.”
While “me” is the most common usage, it is ambiguous because either comparison is very reasonable. Because of this, as NN said, you may need to explicitly state what you mean if it’s not clear from the context.
Why reread old posts? And don’t say ‘why not?’, because it makes no sense. After all, what’s done is done. I experienced this in 2018 when I was nearly fatally injured due to someone’s actions, but I got through it. I had processed it, but the perpetrator had to have his way and came back in 2021, reminding me of what had happened to me three years earlier. I fought back and will continue to fight until I have forced the enemy to their knees. It is so sad…‘What’s the matter, is your past catching up with you? No, someone is catching it up for me, for the sole purpose of trying to destroy me again.’
Pleasant dreams.
I almost never agree with NN, and I suppose you know why that is.
But, if you were to say: ‘He likes Mary more than I (do).’ , it would change the meaning of the sentence completely.
Arinker, I have to tell you this, but, although we don’t know each other, I love you very much, I mean this from the bottom of my heart.
“I” is the subject and “me” is the object. He likes candy more than I means than I do, but more than me sounds like he prefers candy over a person.
in casual talk, Me and my friend went is normal but My friend and I went is more proper.
Again, subject and object complements.